1880 tariff and country of origin

[spinsheet]

I know that after 1880 all razors imported into the USA had to have the country of manufacture stamped on the razor due to the 1880 tariff act. What about razors made in the USA, did they also have to the the country of manufacture on them (USA)? If so, would it be safe to assume that any razor, regardless of where it was made that does not have a country of manufacture stamped on it would be 1880 or older?

I have a Muller Bros. & Co. straight with no country stamped on it. I can't find any info on Muller Bros. & Co. so I currently have do idea where (or when) it was made.

 

[spinsheet]

I may have been mistaken, upon further research I see that it may have been the 1891 Madrid Protocol. Although I do remember reading something about a 1881 tariff act in the USA. Not sure if I'm confusing the two or if they both come into play.

 

[DrStrange]

I may have been mistaken, upon further research I see that it may have been the 1891 Madrid Protocol. Although I do remember reading something about a 1881 tariff act in the USA. Not sure if I'm confusing the two or if they both come into play.

There's a few different laws over a span of years.

The law requiring the words "Made In" before the name of the nation,
is from 1914.

 

[Legion]

As the majority of US made razors were intended for domestic sale, I doubt they were under any obligation to mark them USA if they didn't want to.

 

[spinsheet]

There's a few different laws over a span of years.

The law requiring the words "Made In" before the name of the nation,
is from 1914.

So if the razor, a Wade & Butcher for example, only said Sheffield then it would be pre 1891, if it said Sheffield England then between 1881 and 1914. After 1914 it would say Made in England. Would that be a correct assumption?

 

[Legion]

So if the razor, a Wade & Butcher for example, only said Sheffield then it would be pre 1891, if it said Sheffield England then between 1881 and 1914. After 1914 it would say Made in England. Would that be a correct assumption?

I've got lots of Sheffield razors made after 1914 that just say Sheffield England, without the "Made in".

To confuse the matter further, I have some that just have the brand name on the razor, and all other info was printed on the coffin.

 

[DrStrange]

So if the razor, a Wade & Butcher for example, only said Sheffield then it would be pre 1891, if it said Sheffield England then between 1881 and 1914. After 1914 it would say Made in England. Would that be a correct assumption?

Something like that but it's more complicated.

Questions on a seven day set from C.V. Heljestrand

Thanks for the advices, guys! Really useful. I'll definitely start with a gentle clean and then see for the next steps :)

www.badgerandblade.com

 

[spinsheet]

Thanks for all the info! I'm now more confused than ever!